by The Citadel

When the Scottish Parliament was enacted, quite rightly, Human Rights were enshrined in the empowering act as it was argued that it was an EU requirement. This being so, the EU should also insist that human rights should be enshrined in the constitutions of all member states. They demanded constancy in fruit and veg etc., is it too much bother to insist that all member states must ament their constitutions to guarantee human rights equally throughout the EU?

My query is this: as I understand it, Spain and all EU states are a signatory to the UN Charter which defines Human Rights.

Were the Spanish Government, and all signatories, not honour bound to amend their constitution in line with their agreement with the UN Charter?

If their signing of the UN Charter had been sincere their constitutions would have been amended. The fact that it was not declares all such signatures to be a sham, an act of blatant political posturing: an act of supremacists’ rights not human rights.

In the, not so distant past, Rosa Parks defied the law and we applauded it as being just. Earlier than this, Nelson Mandela and Gandhi defied the law and we applauded them for the justice of their causes.

Currently, UK media proclaim that Catalonia has acted illegally. But is this true? They are being brutalised and denied their human rights. The media claim, with no accurate facts that those seeking independence are not a majority. So, if they are right about where the majority lies, why not furnish the proof. The proof of who is right about the numbers would have been easily settled if the referendum had been allowed to go ahead without any violent repression.

I am sure that no one wishes to see a repeat of the 1930s in Europe. So, if that is true, why do we blindly accept the legality of current events in Spain? If we were to lay aside our political and self-interests, European Governments and Media should be questioning the legality of the Spanish Constitution and not unquestioningly supporting their reaction.